neurology question
There is one question I can't figure the data they gave. There is a description of a 79 y/o female with paresthesia and tingling of the right hand coming to the ED suspecting a stroke. history of atrial fib, DMII, HTN... and a story that fits ischemic limb diagnosis. My problem is there are no deep tendon reflexes in the patellar and achilles tendons on both sides. Why did they give this data if it's irrelevant? and if it is what's the explanation?
It's irrelevant in this case. A majority of the times, deep tendon Reflexes may be absent in elderly people as a result of amyloid deposition on the tendons or even fibrosis to that extent and it is a normal phenomenon. This pt s/s seems to be a clear cut case of something to do with ischemia secondary to AF.
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