Could someone please tell me which protocole would you choose and why? Or would someone please point me where I can find the right answer? I’m using Robbins Basic Pathology 8th Edition and I can’t find anything that back up any posible answer A or D

An embolus to the middle cerebral artery of a 69 year old female results in a large recent infarction of a portion of the left cerebral hemisphere and is unable to move the right side of her body. In order to reduce the ischemia and prevent additional loss of neurologic function, a protocol is instituted that utilizes:
A Aspirin to decrease platelet aggregation
B Interleukin-1 to increase macrophage function
C Fibroblast growth factor to increase angiogenesis
D Nitric oxide to increase vasodilation
E Fibrinogen to promote coagulation